While studying our “founding” verse — Luke 21:36 — I was intrigued to note that the KJV uses a different Greek word than most of the other more modern English translations such as the NASB.

Of course I can’t leave well enough alone so I had to get to the bottom of this.  In the process, I found this interesting article on the web.  I’m sure this is just one side of an intense scholarly debate, but it seemed to be reasonably well written and informative.

http://www.ecclesia.org/truth/nt_manuscripts.html

It definitely lends some credibility to the “King James Only” crowd.

Here’s another article that gives another side…

https://bible.org/article/majority-text-and-original-text-are-they-identical

Any thoughts?